poadeleted3
Pattern Altitude
- Joined
- Mar 2, 2005
- Messages
- 2,055
Some guy got held up in traffic at a construction site, got frustrated, and made an obscene hand gesture at a construction worker. Construction worker tells a cop, cop cites the guy (which no doubt helped ease his frustration.) Guy says he has a Constitutional right to free speech, which was violated by the cop and the cop's department. The charge has been dropped, but the guy is suing anyway, on the basis that his rights were deliberately violated.
So? Does he have a right to be rude? Personally, I think so. The Constitution does not give us a right to not be offended by the behavior of others. He did no physical harm, committed no violence, threatened no harm or violence. He was rude and ill mannered, and it is my opinion his right to behave badly is indeed Constitutionally protected.
http://www.breitbart.com/news/2006/03/14/D8GBDDHO9.html
So? Does he have a right to be rude? Personally, I think so. The Constitution does not give us a right to not be offended by the behavior of others. He did no physical harm, committed no violence, threatened no harm or violence. He was rude and ill mannered, and it is my opinion his right to behave badly is indeed Constitutionally protected.
http://www.breitbart.com/news/2006/03/14/D8GBDDHO9.html