Question about this routing out of DC

[polaris]

Flying out of KGAI, ATC gave me this IFR clearance:“N12345 is cleared to KTOL via WOOLY V44 MRB V501 THS V469 JST then direct.”

Now that I sit down and look at this routing, I am wondering if there was a reason for the redundancy in his clearance language. Is there a reason he didn't just say:

“N12345 is cleared to KTOL via WOOLY V44 MRB V501 THS V469 JST then direct.”

Doesn’t that say the same exact thing as the first clearance? Because the victor airways V44 and V469 basically connect the other two points? Am I missing something?

 

[polaris]

Oh, maybe he did that in case he wanted to amend my clearance to intercept V44 off KGAI instead of going all the way to WOOLY? So if he couldn't clear me direct MRB, he could clear me to intercept V44 from present position?

 

[wsuffa]

Airway clearances are typical around there. The clearance is as issued by the center computer. Shortcuts are frequently given once you're in the air and on radar.

 

[poadeleted20]

Bill's got it -- they generally do not give direct VOR-VOR clearances when there are V-airways directly connecting the two. Just the computer being the computer.

 

[flyingron]

It's there way of verifying the accuracy of your instruments.